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Question:

The following statement (p→q)→[(¬p→q)→q] is:

a tautology

a fallacy

equivalent to ¬p→q

equivalent to p→¬q

Solution:

p q ¬p p→q ¬p→q (¬p→q)→q (p→q)→[(¬p→q)→q]
T T F T T T T
T F F F T F T
F T T T T T T
F F T T F T T

Since all the values in the last column are true, hence the given statement is a tautology.